- Question 1: A 32-year-old female presents with recurrent epigastric pain. She describes a burning sensation that improves with food intake. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Gastroenteritis
- B) Peptic ulcer disease
- C) Gastric cancer
- D) Inflammatory bowel disease
- Question 2: A 45-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing and swelling of the ankles. On examination, you note elevated jugular venous pressure and crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- B) Heart failure
- C) Pulmonary embolism
- D) Pneumonia
- Question 3: A 28-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Physical examination reveals a diffuse goiter. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
- A) Hyperthyroidism
- B) Hypothyroidism
- C) Thyroid cancer
- D) Graves’ disease
- Question 4: A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with painless jaundice and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Acute pancreatitis
- B) Alcoholic liver disease
- C) Pancreatic cancer
- D) Gallstone pancreatitis
- Question 5: A 22-year-old male presents with a sore throat, fever, and swollen cervical lymph nodes. On examination, you note tonsillar exudates and palatal petechiae. What is the most likely causative organism?
- A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B) Haemophilus influenzae
- C) Streptococcus pyogenes
- D) Staphylococcus aureus
- Question 6: A 35-year-old female presents with a sudden, severe headache associated with photophobia and nausea. On examination, neck stiffness is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Migraine
- B) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- C) Cluster headache
- D) Tension-type headache
- Question 7: A 60-year-old male complains of difficulty initiating and maintaining sleep. He reports waking up early and feeling unrefreshed. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
- A) Benzodiazepines
- B) Tricyclic antidepressants
- C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
- D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I)
- Question 8: A 25-year-old female presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C) Gestational diabetes
- D) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
- Question 9: A 40-year-old male smoker presents with chronic cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. Chest X-ray reveals an apical lung lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Tuberculosis
- B) Lung cancer
- C) Pneumonia
- D) Chronic bronchitis
- Question 10: A 30-year-old pregnant female presents with severe itching, particularly on the palms and soles. Laboratory tests show elevated serum bile acids. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Preeclampsia
- B) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP)
- C) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
- D) Gestational diabetes
Some more questions
1. What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the UK?
a) Graves’ disease
b) Toxic multinodular goiter
c) Subacute thyroiditis
d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
2. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI) in a non-pregnant female?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
d) Nitrofurantoin
3. A 45-year-old man presents with crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg. What is the initial management?
a) Aspirin and clopidogrel
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Morphine
d) Oxygen and sublingual nitroglycerin
4. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for all infants in the UK at two, three, and four months of age?
a) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
b) Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP)
c) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
d) Meningococcal B (MenB)
5. What is the first-line treatment for acute otitis media in a 2-year-old child?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Azithromycin
d) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
6. In a patient with suspected iron deficiency anemia, which laboratory finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
a) Increased ferritin
b) Increased transferrin saturation
c) Decreased serum iron
d) Increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
7. A patient with a known history of alcohol use disorder presents with confusion and disorientation. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with this presentation?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin D
8. Which of the following is a common side effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypocalcemia
9. A 30-year-old woman presents with a sudden-onset, severe headache and photophobia. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?
a) Lumbar puncture
b) Non-contrast head CT
c) MRI of the brain
d) Blood cultures
10. What is the first-line treatment for a patient with confirmed Clostridioides difficile infection?
a) Vancomycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Clindamycin
d) Ciprofloxacin
some more questions
1. Which of the following statements about the blood supply to the spleen is correct?
A. It receives its arterial supply from the splenic artery only.
B. It receives dual blood supply from the coeliac artery and splenic artery.
C. The splenic vein drains directly into the portal vein.
D. Splenic vein drains into the left renal vein.
2. Regarding the blood supply of the brain, which statement is incorrect?
A. Internal carotid artery supplies the anterior circulation.
B. Vertebral arteries anastomose in the basal region to form the basilar artery
C. Anterior cerebral artery supplies the motor cortex.
D. Posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.
3. Which of the following is the anatomical description of the anterior superior iliac spine?
A. Bony prominence on the anteromedial aspect of the ilium.
B. Posterior superior projection of the ilium.
C. Part of the sacrum.
D. Projection on the ischial tuberosity.
4. The main function of the epinephrine released by adrenal medulla is to:
A. increase glycogenolysis.
B. decrease gastrointestinal motility.
C. increase glucose uptake by cells.
D. dilate blood vessels.
5. ATP is produced primarily by which of the following metabolic pathways?
A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Electron transport chain
D. Pentose phosphate pathway
6. Regarding the layers of the skin, which one of the following statements is false?
A. Stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis.
B. Dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands.
C. Epidermis contains Langerhans cells, melanocytes, keratinocytes.
D. Subcutaneous tissue is present deep to the dermis.
7. The enzyme that irreversibly removes the nitrous group from hemoglobin, converting it to methemoglobin is:
A. Carbonic anhydrase
B. SOD
C. Nitric oxide synthase
D. XOR
8. All are functions of lymphocytes EXCEPT:
A. Mediation of adaptive immune response
B. Phagocytosis
C. Secretion of cytokines
D. Generation of immunologic memory
9. Regarding the layers of meninges, which one of the following is incorrect?
A. Dura mater lines the inner surface of the skull.
B. Arachnoid mater is inner most layer and sits tightly over the pia mater.
C. Subarachnoid space lies between arachnoid and pia mater.
D. Dura mater fuses with periosteum of skull.
10. All are features of a typical neuron EXCEPT:
A. Cell body
B. Axon
C. Dendrites
D. Cilia
11. An example of a neuroglial cell is:
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. All of the above
12. Which one of the following is not a layer of gastrointestinal tract?
A. Lamina propria
B. Muscularis externa
C. Submucosal layer
D. Mesentery
13. The part of nephron which modifies the ultrafiltrate to form final urine is:
A. Glomerulus
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
14. Regarding joints, which one of the following is incorrect?
A. Synovial joints allow for most movement
B. Cartilaginous joints exhibit little or no movement
C. Fibrous joints permit no movement
D. Pivot joints involve rotation on an axis.
15. During ventricular systole, which of the following valves are open?
A. Aortic and Pulmonary
B. Tricuspid and Mitral
C. Aortic only
D. Pulmonary only
16. Which of the following is not a function of bones?
A. Protection of vital organs
B. Mineral homeostasis
C. Fat storage
D. Locomotion
17. The correct sequence of layers from innermost to outermost in the wall of a typical artery is:
A. Tunica intima, tunica adventitia, tunica media
B. Tunica media, tunica intima, tunica adventitia
C. Tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima
D. Tunica media, tunica adventitia, tunica intima
18. All are Gram-positive except:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Enterococcus faecalis
19. Peyer’s patches are collections of lymphoid tissue primarily involved in:
A. Cell mediated immunity
B. Antibody mediated immunity
C. Opsonization
D. Phagocytosis
20. HLA system genes are most closely associated with:
A. Blood group determination
B. Transplant rejection
C. Autoimmune disease susceptibility
D. Complement activation
21. Regarding muscle tissue, which one of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary
B. Skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary
C. Smooth muscle is non-striated and involuntary
D. Myofibrils are main contractile units in cardiac and skeletal muscle
22. The antigen-binding site of an antibody is called:
A. CH2 domain
B. Fab region
C. Fc region
D. Stem region
23. Which of the following hormones acts primarily to increase blood glucose levels?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Growth hormone
D. Estrogen
24. Active transport requires:
A. ATP
B. Sodium gradient
C. Concentration gradient
D. All of the above
25. Regarding the thyroid gland, which one of the following is true?
A. Stores and releases calcitonin
B. Stores and releases T3 and T4
C. Stores and releases growth hormone
D. Storage organ, does not secrete any hormones
26. All are functions of red blood cells EXCEPT:
A. Oxygen transport
B. Carbon dioxide transport
C. Immunological function
D. Regulation of extracellular fluid pH
27. Which type of synovial joint allows for most movement?
A. Pivot
B. Hinge
C. Ball and socket
D. Gliding
28. The structure that allows air to enter and leave the lungs in single file is:
A. Bronchiole
B. Alveolus
C. Bronchus
D. Trachea
29. In the nephron loop of Henle, the function of thick ascending limb is to:
A. Reabsorb sodium and water
B. Secrete potassium into luminal fluid
C. Produce hypertonic medulla
D. Reabsorb bicarbonate and secrete hydrogen ions
30. Regarding muscle physiology, which one of the following is incorrect?
A. Actin and myosin are the main contractile proteins
B. Calcium ions released from sarcoplasmic reticulum cause muscle contraction
C. ATP hydrolysis leads to power stroke and muscle shortening
D. Relaxation occurs due to release of calcium into cytoplasm
31. All are examples of exocrine glands EXCEPT:
A. Salivary glands
B. Sweat glands
C. Pancreas
D. Growth hormone secreting cells of anterior pituitary
32. An example of a protozoan pathogen is:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Staphylococcus aureus
33. Negative feedback mechanism operates in:
A. HPA axis
B. Calcium homeostasis
C. Blood glucose regulation
D. All of the above
34. Selective permeability of glomerular capillary permits passage of which of the following into Bowman’s space:
A. Erythrocytes
B. Albumin
C. IgG
D. Na+
35. In the small intestine, all contribute to absorption of fats EXCEPT:
A. Bile salts
B. Pancreatic lipase
C. Intestinal lipase
D. Intestinal disaccharidases
36. The part of nephron that modifies ultrafiltrate and produces final urine is:
A. Glomerulus
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
37. Regarding spermatogenesis, which one of the following is incorrect?
A. Occurs in seminiferous tubules of testis
B. Results in production of haploid sperms
C. Stimulated by FSH and LH
D. Initial mitotic divisions occur by mitosis
38. Formation of gastric juice in the stomach is mainly stimulated by:
A. Insulin
B. Secretin
C. Gastrin
D. CCK
39. Match column A with column B:
Column A Column B
1. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone a. Vasopressin
2. Antidiuretic hormone b. Cortisol
3. Aldosterone c. Erythropoietin
4. Erythropoietin d. ADH
40. Which one of the following statements regarding dopamine is false?
A. Implicated in movement disorders like Parkinson’s disease
B. Neurotransmitter in reward and pleasure pathways
C. Used as a vasoconstrictor clinically
D. Secreted by posterior pituitary
41. Hepatocyte growth factor is a ligand for which receptor?
A. EGFR
B. ErbB2
C. ErbB3
D. ErbB4
42. Selective IgA deficiency results in:
A. Proteinuria
B. Recurrent sinopulmonary infections
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Glomerulonephritis
43. All are functions of platelets EXCEPT:
A. Formation of platelet plug
B. Clot retraction
C. Opsonization
D. Secretion of serotonin
44. Which one of the following viruses has an RNA genome?
A. Influenza virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. HIV
D. All of the above
45. Deficiency of which one of the following vitamins leads to pellagra?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin
46. Which part of nephron is highly permeable to water?
A. Descending limb of Loop of Henle
B. Thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
47. Human immunodeficiency virus causes:
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis C
C. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
48. Which one of the following statements regarding cytokines is false?
A. Promote inflammation
B. Enhance immune response
C. Have endocrine functions
D. Produced by epithelial cells
49. Insulin like growth factor 2 (IGF-2) is important for:
A. Fetal growth and development
B. Wound healing
C. Glucose regulation
D. Bone remodeling
50. Which of the following best describes an agonist?
A. Increases the effect of the receptor
B. Decreases the effect of the receptor
C. Activates the receptor
D. Inhibits the receptor
51. Which one of the following statements regarding diabetes insipidus is true?
A. Result of ADH oversecretion
B. Associated with hyponatremia
C. Caused by loss of ability to concentrate urine
D. Due to insulin deficiency
52. Which enzyme removes amino groups from amino acids?
A. Transaminases
B. Decarboxylases
C. Dehydrogenases
D. Aminotransferases
53. The term used to describe increased respiratory rate with low PaCO2 is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
54. Regarding Krebs cycle, which one of the following substrates never enters the cycle?
A. Pyruvate
B. α-Ketoglutarate
C. Fumarate
D. Succinyl CoA
55. Which one of the following vitamins acts as a cofactor for enzymes involved in collagen formation and bone mineralization?
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
56. Factor V deficiency causes:
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. Von Willebrand disease
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
57. Match the following:
Column A Column B
1. Amoebiasis a. Toxoplasma gondii
2. Malaria b. Plasmodium falciparum
3. Toxoplasmosis c. Entamoeba histolytica
4. Cryptosporidiosis d. Cryptosporidium spp.
58. In which part of nephron is gluconeogenesis maximum?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
59. Axoneme is present in:
A. Cilia
B. Centrioles
C. Flagella
D. All of the above
60. Select the odd one out:
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Platelets
61. Tolerance occurs after:
A. Primary infection
B. Secondary infection
C. Exposure to small dose of antigen
D. Exposure to large dose of antigen
62. The type of immunity produced as a result of active immunization is:
A. Innate
B. Natural
C. Humoral
D. Cell mediated
63. Which one of the following statements regarding blood groups is FALSE?
A. A and B antigens present on RBCs
B. AB has both A and B antigens on RBCs
C. O has neither A nor B antigens on RBCs
D. Rh antigen is related to rhesus monkey
64. Neurotransmitter involved in visual phototransduction is:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Glutamate
D. Retinal
65. List the components of immune system – cellular and molecular in correct sequence:
A. Cytokines, antibodies, T cells, B cells, phagocytes, complement system.
B. Phagocytes, T cells, B cells, complement system, antibodies, cytokines.
C. B cells, T cells, antibodies, complement system, cytokines, phagocytes.
D. Complement system, cytokines, T cells, B cells, phagocytes, antibodies.
66. Important function of melanin pigment in skin is to:
A. Give colour to skin
B. Act as free radical scavenger
C. Regulate skin temperature
D. All of the above
67. In which part of nephron is ADH ineffective?
A. Descending limb of Loop of Henle
B. Thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
68. Which statement regarding digestion of proteins in small intestine is incorrect?
A. Denatured by gastric acid in stomach
B. Broken down into dipeptides and tripeptides by action of pancreatic proteases
C. Further broken down into amino acids by brush border peptidases
D. Most amino acids absorbed in jejunum by active transport
69. The genetic material of hepatitis B virus is:
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Retrovirus
D. None of the above
70. Match the following viral diseases with their causative virus:
1. Measles a. Herpes simplex virus
2. Mumps b. Influenza virus
3. Chickenpox c. Paramyxovirus
4. Influenza d. Varicella zoster virus
71. Which one of the following is an example of an intracellular pathogen?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Escherichia coli
72. The pacemaker of the heart is:
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers
73. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein is produced in:
A. Small intestine
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
74. In RBC membrane, the ‘self’ marker recognized by reticuloendothelial system is:
A. CD47
B. MHCI
C. MHCII
D. Integrins
75. All are functions of surfactant EXCEPT:
A. Reduces alveolar surface tension
B. Inhibits collapse of alveoli during expiration
C. Dilates bronchioles to improve ventilation
D. Protects against infection
76. Immune tolerance occurs by what mechanism?
A. Clonal deletion of autoreactive lymphocytes in thymus
B. Clonal anergy of autoreactive lymphocytes
C. Suppression by regulatory T cells
D. Clonal exhaustion of autoreactive lymphocytes
77. If glomerular filtration rate falls below 15ml/min, it is called:
A. Renal impairment
B. Chronic kidney disease stage 3
C. End stage kidney disease
D. Acute kidney injury
78. Blood flows from pulmonary vein to:
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Kidneys
79. Regarding lung volumes and capacities, which one of the following is incorrect?
A. Tidal volume – Volume of air inhaled/exhaled during normal breathing
B. Inspiratory reserve volume – Max volume that can be inhaled
C. Residual volume – Volume left after maximal expiration
D. Vital capacity – Max volume of air that can be inhaled/exhaled after a normal expiration
80. Hyperuricemia can lead to formation of:
A. Calcium oxalate stones
B. Struvite stones
C. Uric acid stones
D. Cystine stones
81. All are examples of RNA viruses EXCEPT:
A. Rotavirus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. HPV
D. mumps
82. Match column A with column B:
Column A Column B
1. LDL a. Increase RBC count
2. EPO b. Carries cholesterol
3. VLDL c. Transports triglycerides
4. HDL d. Protects against atherosclerosis
83. A 55-year old man presents with frequent episodes of episodic hemoptysis. Investigation reveals cavitary lesions on CXR. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Pneumonia
84. Haptoglobin binds free hemoglobin in plasma to:
A. Facilitate oxygen delivery to tissues
B. Prevent oxidation of iron portion
C. Increase oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs
D. Both a and b
85. Which of the following cells does NOT express MHC class I molecules?
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Endothelial cells
86. Selective IgM deficiency can lead to:
A. Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections
B. Decreased antibody responses to polysaccharide antigens
C. Deficiency of opsonization
D. All of the above
87. The major site of heme synthesis is:
A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
88. Regarding digestion of proteins, which one of the following is false?
A. Denatured by gastric acid in stomach
B. Broken down into dipeptides/tripeptides by pancreatic proteases
C. Further broken down into amino acids by peptidases on brush border
D. Most amino acids absorbed by simple diffusion in jejunum
89. Schistosomiasis is caused by infection with:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Schistosoma haematobium
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Taenia saginata
90. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves antibodies binding cell surface antigens and activating complement cascade?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
91. Regarding blood groups, which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A and B antigens present on RBCs
B. O has neither A nor B antigens
C. AB has both A and B antigens
D. Rh antigen is either present (Rh+) or absent (Rh-)
92. An example of a negatively charged ion that enters cells via active transport is:
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Ca2+
D. Cl-
93. Selective IgA deficiency results in:
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Recurrent infections of respiratory tract
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Epilepsy
94. Match the following:
Column A Column B
1. TSH a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
2. ACTH b. Luteinizing hormone
3. FSH c. Thyroid stimulating hormone
4. LH d. Follicle stimulating hormone
95. Common site of Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is:
A. Lungs
B. Intestines
C. Skin
D. Liver
96. Phase of acute inflammation characterized by neutrophil migration is:
A. Vasodilation
B. Cellular phase
C. Proliferative phase
D. Resolution phase
97. Which of the following viral diseases is associated with hemorrhagic manifestations?
A. Rubella
B. Mumps
C. Smallpox
D. Rabies
98. Regarding genetics, which one of the following pairs does NOT involve alleles?
A. ABO blood groups
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Duchene muscular dystrophy
D. Klinefelter syndrome
99. Creatinine is filtered freely by glomerulus. Its serum level is used to estimate:
A. Glomerular filtration rate
B. Tubular function
C. Renal plasma flow
D. Both a and c
100. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein is secreted by:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
101. Cystatin-C is better than creatinine as marker of kidney function because:
A. Not influenced by muscle mass
B. More sensitive indicator of GFR changes
C. Reflects both glomerular and tubular function
D. All of the above
102. Which of the following contains keratin?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous tissue
D. All of the above
103. Lymphatic vessels drain into:
A. Hepatic portal vein
B. Renal vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Lymph nodes
104. Most abundant cells in activated T cell-dependent antibody responses belong to:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Memory B cells
105. Regarding Rh blood group system, which statement is incorrect?
A. Rh antigen present on RBCs
B. Rh negative persons do not have Rh antigen
C. Hemolytic disease of newborn can occur if Rh negative mother delivers Rh positive baby
D. Always inherited as autosomal characteristic
106. Which cellular component of innate immune system provides first line defense?
A. Complement system
B. NK cells
C. Phagocytes
D. Antimicrobial peptides
107. Match the following hormones with their target organ:
1. T3, T4 a. Ovary
2. FSH b. Testis
3. LH c. Thyroid
4. hCG d. Anterior pituitary
108. Echinococcosis is caused by infection with:
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
109. Match the following:
Column A Column B
1. Exocrine glands a. Salivary glands
2. Ductless glands b. Pancreas
3. Endocrine glands c. Thyroid gland
4. Mixed glands d. Liver
110. Which of the following mediators causes smooth muscle contraction?
A. Histamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Prostaglandins
D. Leukotrienes
111. Selective IgM deficiency predisposes to:
A. Bronchopulmonary disease
B. Severe staphylococcal infections
C. Tetanus
D. Measles inclusion body encephalitis
112. Individuals with chronic kidney disease are at high risk of:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperphosphatemia
D. All of the above
113. Hurler’s syndrome is a lysosomal storage disorder due to deficiency of which enzyme?
A. α-galactosidase
B. β-galactosidase
C. β-glucosidase
D. Hexosaminidase A
114. Which of the following statements regarding ozone layer is true?
A. Absorbs UVB radiations
B. Located in troposphere
C. Thins out due to air pollution
D. Protects lower atmosphere from infrared radiations
115. All are features of a virus EXCEPT:
A. Genetic material is DNA/RNA
B. Has cytoplasmic ribosomes
C. Encapsulated by a protein coat called capsid
D. Can replicate only in living host cells
116. During which phase of menstrual cycle does fertilization occur?
A. Follicular phase
B. Ovulatory phase
C. Luteal phase
D. Secretory phase
117. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when fertilized ovum implants in:
A. Endometrium
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Ovary
D. Cervix
118. Androgens are mainly secreted by:
A. Ovaries
B. Testes
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Pancreas
119. Deficiency of which one of the following vitamins can cause macular degeneration?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
120. Gout is characterized by deposition of:
A. Calcium pyrophosphate
B.Cholesterol
C. Uric acid
D. Cystine
121. Regarding Krebs cycle, which one is oxidized to form NADH?
A. Citrate
B. Fumarate
C. α-Ketoglutarate
D. Succinyl CoA
122. All are correct matches EXCEPT:
A. Ureter – Connects kidney to bladder
B. Nephron – Functional unit of kidney
C. Renal pelvis – Cup shaped structure at renal hilum
D. Collecting duct – Drains urine from nephrons into renal pelvis
123. Insulin triggers all EXCEPT:
A. Increased glucose uptake by cells
B. Glycogen synthesis
C. Proteolysis
D. Lipolysis
124. Which of the following statements regarding heart sounds is incorrect?
A. S1 is louder and is caused by closure of AV valves
B. S2 has two components caused by closure of semilunar valves
C. S3 occurs in mid to late diastole due to rapid ventricular filling
D. S4 occurs in early diastole and indicates severe cardiac dysfunction
125. Selective IgA deficiency may predispose to:
A. Tetanus
B. Diphtheria
C. Pertussis
D. All of the above
126. Match the following hormones with their functions:
1. ADH a. Facilitates parturition
2. Oxytocin b. Stimulates lactation
3. Prolactin c. Water reabsorption by kidneys
4. Estrogen d. Prepares uterus for implantation
127. G6PD deficiency is an X-linked condition and clinically presents with:
A. Hemolytic anemia triggered by fava beans or infection
B. Coagulation deficiency
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Anemia due to bleeding
128. The hormone involved in maintenance of early pregnancy is:
A. Oxytocin
B. Luteinizing hormone
C.Estrogen
D. Progesterone
129. Identify the odd one out:
A. Acanthocytes
B. Target cells
C. Sickle cells
D. Echinocytes
130. Which one of the following is a cholestatic liver condition?
A. Liver abscess
B. Hepatitis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Obstructive jaundice
131. Which of the following statements regarding lacteals is incorrect?
A. Absorb fatty particles called chylomicrons from intestinal villi
B. Present in villi of small intestine
C. Drain into lacteal vessels
D. Transport fat to heart for combustion
132. Insulin triggers all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Lipolysis
C. Proteolysis
D. Glycolysis
133. The neurotransmitter involved in pain perception pathways is:
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Norepinephrine
D. Substance P
134. Salbutamol acts as a/an:
A. Agonist at β2 adrenergic receptors
B. Competitive inhibitor of cyclic AMP
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Both a and b
135. HIV causes:
A. AIDS
B. Hepatitis C
C. Pneumocystis pneumonia
D. All of the above
136. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis involves sacroiliac and spinal joints
B. Osteoarthritis commonly affects knee, hip, hand joints
C. Gout involves deposits of uric acid crystals in joints
D. Rheumatoid arthritis is a non-inflammatory arthritis
137. Vitamin K is required for:
A. Blood clotting
B. Connective tissue formation
C. Lipid metabolism
D. Galactose metabolism
138. The hormone oxytocin triggers all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Milk ejection during breastfeeding
B. Uterine contractions during childbirth
C. Platelet aggregation
D. Plasma osmolarity regulation
139. An individual with AB blood group can receive blood from:
A. A, B, AB
B. O, B
C. O only
D. A only
140. Regarding acid-base balance, which of the following best describes metabolic acidosis?
A. Decreased HCO3- with normal pCO2
B. Increased H+ with normal pCO2
C. Decreased HCO3- with increased pCO2
D. Increased H+ with increased pCO2
141. Cystic fibrosis is an example of:
A. Mitochondrial disorder
B. Lysosomal storage disorder
C. Autosomal recessive disorder
D. X-linked disorder
142. Which one of the following cells is NOT phagocytic?
A. Neutrophil
B. Monocyte
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil
143. The type of joint between skull bones is:
A. Synovial joint
B. Fibrous joint
C. Cartilaginous joint
D. Syndesmosis
144. Identify the carrier of oxygen to tissues:
A. Hemoglobin in RBCs
B. Myoglobin in muscle
C. Cytochromes in mitochondria
D. All of the above
145. Which is the major site for fatty acid oxidation?
A. Liver
B. Skeletal muscles
C. Heart
D. Adipose tissue
146. Select the wrong match:
A. ACTH – Adrenal cortex
B. TSH – Thyroid
C. GnRH – Pituitary
D. LH/FSH – Ovary/testis
147. Tetany occurs due to hypocalcemia resulting from:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypovitaminosis D
D. Hyperthyroidism
148. Which part of nephron is impermeable to water?
A. Descending limb of loop of Henle
B. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Early distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
149. Select the cell type with RBC like biconcave shape:
A. Neutrophil
B. Monocyte
C. Platelet
D. Eosinophil
150. Thyroid gland disorders like Graves disease and Hashimoto thyroiditis are examples of:
A. Autoimmune disorders
B. Deficiency disorders
C. Neoplastic disorders
D. Metabolic disorders
151. Which part of nephron produces dilute urine in response to ADH?
A. Thick ascending loop of Henle
B. Early distal convoluted tubule
C. Late distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
152. Regarding digestion of proteins in the small intestine, all are correct EXCEPT:
A. Denatured by gastric acid in stomach
B. Broken down to peptides by pancreatic proteases
C. Further broken down to amino acids by peptidases on brush border
D. Absorbed by simple diffusion in jejunum
153. Iga nephropathy is characterized by:
A. Deposition of IgA in glomerular mesangium
B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Minimal change disease
154. All are components of innate immunity except:
A. Phagocytes
B. Complement
C. Memory lymphocytes
D. Natural killer cells
155. Which does NOT increase renal blood flow?
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide
B. ANP
C. Bradykinin
D. Prostaglandins
156. An example of a saturated fatty acid is:
A. Linoleic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Oleic acid
157. Match the following tests with the condition assessed:
1. Liver function tests a. Gastric emptying
2. Schilling’s test b. B12 absorption
3. Stool fat assessment c. Liver damage
4. gastric emptying scan d. Malabsorption
158. Thrombocytopenia occurs in:
A. Hemophilia A
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Leukemia
D. All of the above
159. Hypokalemia occurs in all conditions EXCEPT:
A. Diarrhea
B. Diuretic use
C. Vomiting
D. Hyperaldosteronism
160. Which vitamin deficiency causes glossitis and cheilosis?
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Cyanocobalamin
161. Regarding inheritance patterns, which one of the following is an example of X-linked inheritance?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D. Alzheimer’s disease
162. Features of myasthenia gravis include:
A. Fatigueable weakness of ocular, bulbar, limbs muscles
B. Antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies
C. Responds to cholinergic drugs
D. All of the above
163. Glycogen storage disease type I is due to deficiency of:
A. Glycogen phosphorylase
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase
C. Glycogen synthase
D. Branching enzyme
164. Dwarfism occurs in growth hormone deficiency due to:
A. Reduced IGF-1 synthesis
B. Increased collagen synthesis
C. Reduced thyroid hormones
D. Reduced progesterone
165. Signet ring cells are seen in:
A. Lung cancer
B. Breast cancer
C. Colon cancer
D. Stomach cancer
166. All are chromosomal abnormalities associated with abnormal phenotypes EXCEPT:
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
167. The site for plaque formation in atherosclerosis is:
A. Mitral valve
B. Aortic valve
C. Arteries
D. Veins
168. Parotid gland secretes:
A. Saliva rich in amylase
B. Saliva rich in maltase
C. Saliva rich in lipase
D. Albumin rich secretion
169. Individuals with AB blood group are:
A. Universal recipients
B. Universal donors
C. Can receive from O, A, B
D. Can donate to O, A, B, AB
170. Which type of bony joint allows greatest range of movement?
A. Synovial joint
B. Suture joint
C. Syndesmosis
D. Gomphosis
171. Insulin is:
A. Anabolic hormone
B. Gluconeogenic hormone
C. Ketogenic hormone
D. Glycolytic hormone
172. Hyperprolactinemia can cause:
A. Amenorrhea
B. Gynecomastia
C. Osteoporosis
D. Hypertension
173. Beta blockers are useful in treating:
A. Heart failure
B. Hypertension
C. Angina
D. All of the above
174. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency causes:
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Emphysema
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Porphyria
175. Following are functions of hyaluronic acid EXCEPT:
A. Lubrication
B. Cell proliferation
C. Scaffold for collagen fibers
D. Matrix for leukocyte migration
176. Granulomatous lung disease caused by inhalation of silica particles includes:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergillosis
D. Silicosis
177. An example of an exocrine gland is:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pancreas
C. Pineal gland
D. Thyroid
178. Regarding blood clotting, which one of the following is incorrect?
A. Initiated by tissue damage exposing collagen/thromboplastin
B. Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge at activation of factor X
C. Final step involves platelets aggregating to form plug
D. Fibrinolysis by plasmin dissolves the clot
179. Ankylosing spondylitis typically involves:
A. Knees
B. Shoulders
C. Sacroiliac joints and spine
D. Elbows
180. Antihypertensive medication acting by blocking calcium channels includes:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blockers
C. Alpha blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
181. Selective IgA deficiency can lead to:
A. Bronchopulmonary disease
B. Staphylococcal infections
C. Renal disease
D. All of the above
182. Glycogen storage disease type I results in:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Lactic acidosis
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Diabetes mellitus
183. Hydatid disease/cyst is caused by infection with:
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
184. Insulin triggers all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Lipolysis
C. Proteolysis
D. Glycolysis
185. Following are features of myasthenia gravis EXCEPT:
A. Fatigueable weakness of ocular and bulbar muscles
B. Positive acetylcholine receptor antibody test
C. Responds to anticholinesterase medication
D. Primary disorder of neuromuscular junction
186. Match the following hormones with their axis:
1. LH/FSH a. HPA axis
2. CRH/ACTH b. HPO axis
3. Glucocorticoids c. HPT axis
4. TSH/Calcitonin d. GnRH axis
187. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin C
188. Hypothyroidism is associated with:
A. Tachycardia
B. Warm dry skin
C. Weight loss
D. Goiter
189. Hemochromatosis is characterized by:
A. Iron overload due to excess dietary iron ingestion
B. hereditary causes with iron absorption defect
C. Anemia and jaundice
D. Blood transfusion as primary cause
190. Which part of nephron produces concentrated urine?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
191. Regarding the menstrual cycle, at what stage does ovulation occur?
A. Follicular phase
B. Luteal phase
C. Secretory phase
D. Menstruation
192. Antibiotic used to treat syphilis is:
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Metronidazole
D. Isoniazid
193. Signs of rheumatic fever include:
A. Subcutaneous nodules
B. Arthralgia
C. Maculopapular rash
D. Conjunctivitis
194. Which one of the following best describes Hunter syndrome?
A. Lysosomal storage disease
B. Peroxisomal disorder
C. Mitochondrial disease
D. Disorder of heme synthesis
195. FSH stimulates:
A. Spermatogenesis
B. Growth of ovarian follicles
C. Lactation
D. Uterine growth
196. Regarding digestion of proteins, all are correct EXCEPT:
A. Denatured by stomach acid
B. Broken into di-/tri-peptides by pancreatic proteases
C. Further broken into amino acids by brush border peptidases
D. Absorbed by simple diffusion in jejunum
197. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissue found in:
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Colon
D. Esophagus
198. Salivary glands secrete saliva containing:
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Rennin
D. All of the above
199. Type of muscle found in gastrointestinal tract:
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Cardiac muscle
C. Smooth muscle
D. Adipose muscle
200. Increased levels of serum calcium can be seen in:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Hyperthyroidism
some more questions
1. A 55-year-old man presents with shortness of breath on exertion and chest tightness. On examination, you hear bilateral inspiratory crackles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. A 30-year-old woman presents with irregular menses and pelvic pain. On ultrasound, you see a complex cystic mass in her ovary. What is the most likely diagnosis?
3. A 60-year-old man presents with a painless lump on his neck. On fine-needle aspiration, you see atypical cells. What is the next step in management?
4. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. Her blood tests show anemia and an elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
5. A 20-year-old man presents with a rash on his arms and legs, fever, and joint pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
6. A 40-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, you find rebound tenderness and guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
7. A 60-year-old woman presents with a lump in her breast and bloody nipple discharge. What is the next step in management?
8. A 50-year-old man presents with difficulty passing urine. On examination, you find an enlarged prostate gland. What is the most likely diagnosis?
9. A 30-year-old woman presents with a fall on her outstretched hand. On examination, you see deformity of her wrist. What is the most likely diagnosis?
10. A 20-year-old man presents with a deep laceration to his arm. What is the most appropriate closure technique?
11. A 6-month-old baby presents with fever, cough, and runny nose. What is the most likely diagnosis?
12. A 2-year-old child presents with vomiting and diarrhea. What is the most likely cause?
13. A 5-year-old child presents with recurrent ear infections. What is the most appropriate management?
14. A 10-year-old child presents with delayed development and behavioral problems. What is the most likely diagnosis?
15. A 15-year-old girl presents with irregular menses and abdominal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
16. A 25-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and a positive pregnancy test. What is the most likely diagnosis?
17. A 30-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy. What is the most likely cause?
18. A 35-year-old woman presents with preeclampsia. What is the most appropriate management?
19. A 40-year-old woman presents with menopausal symptoms. What are the treatment options?
20. A 45-year-old woman presents with a lump in her breast. What is the next step in management?
some more clinical questions
- Medicine:
- A 45-year-old patient presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm. What is the most appropriate initial management?
- Surgery:
- A patient with appendicitis is being considered for surgery. What is the preferred surgical approach for uncomplicated appendicitis?
- Obstetrics and Gynecology:
- A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what immediate steps should be taken?
- Pediatrics:
- A 2-year-old child presents with persistent cough and wheezing. What is the first-line treatment for suspected asthma in this age group?
- Psychiatry:
- A 30-year-old patient presents with low mood, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. What is the initial management for suspected major depressive disorder?
- Ophthalmology:
- A patient complains of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what urgent action is required?
- ENT (Ear, Nose, and Throat):
- A patient reports hearing loss and vertigo. What condition involving the inner ear should be considered, and what diagnostic test is commonly used?
- Orthopedics:
- A patient sustains a closed fracture of the radius and ulna. What is the initial management, and what potential complications should be monitored?
- Dermatology:
- A patient presents with a pruritic rash on the flexor surfaces of the wrists and elbows. What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the first-line treatment?
- Neurology:
- A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness of the right arm and face. What is the most likely cause, and what imaging study is essential for diagnosis?
- Cardiology:
- A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What potential side effect should be monitored, and how is it managed?
- Infectious Diseases:
- A patient presents with fever, cough, and shortness of breath. What infectious disease should be considered, and what initial diagnostic test is most appropriate?
- Gastroenterology:
- A patient presents with recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. What inflammatory bowel disease is likely, and what diagnostic test is confirmatory?
- Respiratory Medicine:
- A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports increased dyspnea. What is the appropriate step in managing an acute exacerbation of COPD?
- Hematology:
- A patient with easy bruising and petechiae is found to have a low platelet count. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what confirmatory test should be ordered?
- Endocrinology:
- A patient with diabetes mellitus presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. What type of diabetes is most likely, and what diagnostic test confirms the diagnosis?
- Nephrology:
- A patient with hypertension develops proteinuria. What renal disorder should be considered, and what initial test is used to assess kidney function?
- Rheumatology:
- A patient presents with joint pain, swelling, and morning stiffness. What autoimmune disorder is likely, and what specific antibody test is commonly positive?
- Emergency Medicine:
- A patient is brought to the emergency department after a seizure. What medication is the first-line treatment for acute seizure management?
- Public Health and Epidemiology:
- An outbreak of gastrointestinal illness is reported in a community. What measures should be taken to investigate and control the outbreak?