1. A 25-year-old man presents with a closed fracture of the tibial shaft after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial management?
A. Splinting and elevation
B. Open reduction and internal fixation
C. Casting
D. Traction
2. A 40-year-old woman complains of severe pain and swelling in her lower leg after a fall. Radiographs reveal a displaced fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Closed reduction and casting
B. Open reduction and internal fixation
C. Traction
D. Splinting
3. A 30-year-old man presents with a non-displaced tibial plateau fracture after a skiing accident. The most appropriate initial treatment would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Traction
D. Bracing and weight-bearing as tolerated
4. A 60-year-old woman with osteoporosis sustains a minimally displaced fracture of the proximal tibia. The most appropriate management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Bracing and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
5. A 45-year-old man presents with a comminuted fracture of the tibial shaft after a high-energy trauma. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Traction
B. Casting
C. Open reduction and internal fixation with intramedullary nailing
D. Splinting
6. A 35-year-old woman complains of pain and swelling in her ankle after a fall. Radiographs reveal a displaced fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Casting
B. Open reduction and internal fixation
C. Traction
D. Splinting
7. A 20-year-old athlete presents with a stress fracture of the proximal tibia. The most appropriate initial management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Activity modification and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
8. A 55-year-old man with diabetes mellitus presents with a non-displaced fracture of the tibial shaft. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Traction
D. Bracing and weight-bearing as tolerated
9. A 40-year-old woman presents with a tibial plateau fracture after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following is a potential complication of this injury?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Malunion
C. Non-union
D. All of the above
10. A 30-year-old man sustains a closed fracture of the proximal tibia after a fall from a height. The most appropriate initial management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Traction
D. Splinting and elevation
11. A 25-year-old woman presents with a non-displaced stress fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Activity modification and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
12. A 50-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with a non-union of a tibial fracture after internal fixation. The most appropriate next step would be:
A. Revision surgery with bone grafting
B. Continuation of the same treatment
C. Casting
D. Traction
13. A 60-year-old woman with osteoporosis sustains a minimally displaced fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Bracing and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
14. A 35-year-old man presents with a comminuted fracture of the proximal tibia after a high-energy trauma. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Traction
B. Casting
C. Open reduction and internal fixation
D. Splinting
15. A 45-year-old woman complains of pain and swelling in her ankle after a fall. Radiographs reveal a displaced fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Casting
B. Open reduction and internal fixation
C. Traction
D. Splinting
16. A 20-year-old athlete presents with a stress fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate initial management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Activity modification and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
17. A 55-year-old man with diabetes mellitus presents with a non-displaced fracture of the proximal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Traction
D. Bracing and weight-bearing as tolerated
18. A 40-year-old woman presents with a tibial plateau fracture after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following is a potential complication of this injury?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Malunion
C. Non-union
D. All of the above
19. A 30-year-old man sustains a closed fracture of the distal tibia after a fall from a height. The most appropriate initial management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Traction
D. Splinting and elevation
20. A 25-year-old woman presents with a non-displaced stress fracture of the proximal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Activity modification and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
21. A 50-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with a non-union of a tibial fracture after internal fixation. The most appropriate next step would be:
A. Revision surgery with bone grafting
B. Continuation of the same treatment
C. Casting
D. Traction
22. A 60-year-old woman with osteoporosis sustains a minimally displaced fracture of the proximal tibia. The most appropriate management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Bracing and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
23. A 35-year-old man presents with a comminuted fracture of the distal tibia after a high-energy trauma. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Traction
B. Casting
C. Open reduction and internal fixation
D. Splinting
24. A 45-year-old woman complains of pain and swelling in her ankle after a fall. Radiographs reveal a displaced fracture of the proximal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Casting
B. Open reduction and internal fixation
C. Traction
D. Splinting
25. A 20-year-old athlete presents with a stress fracture of the proximal tibia. The most appropriate initial management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Activity modification and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction
26. A 55-year-old man with diabetes mellitus presents with a non-displaced fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Traction
D. Bracing and weight-bearing as tolerated
27. A 40-year-old woman presents with a tibial plateau fracture after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following is a potential complication of this injury?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Malunion
C. Non-union
D. All of the above
28. A 30-year-old man sustains a closed fracture of the proximal tibia after a fall from a height. The most appropriate initial management would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Traction
D. Splinting and elevation
29. A 25-year-old woman presents with a non-displaced stress fracture of the distal tibia. The most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Open reduction and internal fixation
B. Casting
C. Activity modification and weight-bearing as tolerated
D. Traction